[ تمريض ] : تجميع لأسئلة الهيئه مهمه جداً =)

[الجُمان]

بسم الله الرحمن الرحيم

هذه أسئله جبتها لكم من مواقع ثانيه
إن شاء الله تستفيدون منها يارب
ولا تنسوني من دعواتكم بظهر الغيب

[الجُمان]

220. following a sigmoidoscope , the patient should be observed for signs of hemorrhage and :-
a. fluid loss
b. performation
c. flatus
d. nausea


221. to avoid the possible development of heart diseases following rheumatic fever the patient must guard himself against infection :-
a. until the fever is gone
b. for one year
c. until sedimentation rat is normal
d. for the rest of his life


222. hypertension is a persistent elevation of systolic and diastolic pressure above:-
a. . 140/90 mmhg
b. 150/190 mmhg
c. 160/100 mmhg
d. 160/110 mmhg

223. After below knee amputation :-
a. keep the patient in semi fowler’s
b. stump to be evaluated
c. watch the site for bleeding

224. to collect urine c/s specimen , the most accurate method:-
a. catheterize the patient
b. mid stream urine
c. provide sterile bedpan and collect urine

225. the nurse should observe the patient receiving decradon:-
a. urinary stasis
b. hypotension
c. infection
d. weight loss

226. signs of septic shock :-
a. cool & clammy skin
b. bradicardia
c. warm & dry skin

227. oral contraceptive used for :-

a. once daily for 21 days
b. once daily for 18 days
c. once daily for 28 days

228. normal arterial O2 saturation :-
a. 85%
b. 92%
c. 97%
d. 100%

229. valve which control the blood flow from right atrium to right ventricle :-
a. bicuspid valve
b. tricuspid valvec. mitral valve
d. pulmonary artery

230. the common complication after operation :-
a. fever
b. pulmonary edema
c. pulmonary embolism

231. digitalis is given :-
a. with meals
b. before meals
c. 3 hours after meals
d. bedtime


232. diet in cirrhosis of liver without ascitis and swelling :-
a. low protein with multivitamins
b. high protein with vitamins B supplement
c. high protein with sodium restriction
d. high protein with diet .


233. persistent sweating , hypotension , tachycardia with loss of fluid on blood . nurse would suspect :-
a. hypovolemic shock
b. cardiogenic shock
c. septic shock
d. neurogenic shock


234. before the collection of blood culture , the site should be cleansed:-
a. isopropyl alcohol 70%
b. isopropyl alcohol 100%
c. povidone iodine


235. blood transfusion reaction occurs , the nurse should :-
a. slow down the rate
b. notify the physician
c. shut off the transfusion


236. signs of hyperglacemia :-
a. polyuria , polydepsia , loss of appetite
b. acetone breath , flushed face , polyuria



237. if O2 is ordered as midication , which method the nurse would choose ?

a. nasal canula
b. nasal catheter
c. O2 mask
d. O2 tent


238. pre-op medication is given :-
a. 2 hours before operation
b. 45 min. before operation
c. previous night of operation
d. as physician ordered

239. temp. 98.6 f , is equal to :-
a. . 37C
b. 37.5C
c. 36.8C
d.37.3 C

240. complication of chemotherapy :-
a. bon marrow depression
b. liver damage

241. ECT is given for :-
a. psychotic depression
b. obsessive compulsive neurosis
c. hysteria

242. Age group more prone to get rheumatic fever :-
A. 5-15 years
B. 5 years
C. above 65 years

243. iron is mostly absorbed in :-
A. large intestine
B. small intestine
C. liver


244. early signs of respiratory arrest:-
A. thread pulse
B. cyanosis
C. orthopnea .


245. one fluid ounce equal to :-
A. 30cc
B. 15cc
C. 60cc
D. 5cc


246. most effective , easy and un-expensive method of sterlization is :-
A. heat
B. pressure
C. drying
D. antiseptic


247. in nephritic syndrome , apart from clinical manifestation the patient would complain of:-
A. proteinuria
B. oliguria
C. hematuria


248. in active stage of osteomelitis the child should be:-
A. continue in bed
B. allowed to sit in a wheel chair
C. walk up and down


249. an enlarged movable lymphnode is a sign of:-
A. inflammationB. malignant
C. normal lymph node
D. any of the above


250. to prevent irreversible brain hypoxia CPR should be commenced within:-
A. 2-3min
B. 4-6 min
C. 6-8 min
D. 8-10 min


251. post-operative patient to do deep breathing & change of position every:-
A. 2 hourly
B. 4 hourly
C. in each shift
D. hourly

[الجُمان]

252. cystitis patient should be encourage to pass urine :-
A. 2-3hourly
B. 2-3 hourly & 2 times in the night
C. 2-3 times round the clock
D. any one of the above according to the patient’s schedule


253.mode of transmission of hepatitis A :-
A. oral
B. parental
C. blood transfusion


254. reacting of penicillin :-
A. anaphylactic shock
B. vomiting
C. nausea.

255. Disease without vaccination :-
A. small pox
B. measles
C. polio
D. chicken pox

256. health teaching to a diabetic patient will be on :-
A. diet , oral hypoglycemic , weight loss , feeding
B. diet , insulin , exercise , feeding
C. diet , hypoglycemic , exercise , feedingD. about complications
c

257. surgical asepsis means :-
A. destroying bacteria from articles .
B. removing the bacteria which is in contact with the patient
C. destroying the bacteria before entering in to the body
D. hand washing

258. ECG done for a patient with chest to assess:-
A. stress of heart rate
B. change the rhythm
C. the decreased blood supply to the particular part of the heart


259. the nurse is expecting fracture of bone for patient , the sign would be:-
A. absence of normal activity B. tenderness
C. loss of sensation
D. all of the above

260. the medicine which will pass through placenta to the fetus:-
A. antibiotic
B. narcotics
C. sedatives
D. all of the above

The differentiate sign to diagnose Myocardial Infraction from Angina pectoris is :a.
a The patient’s pain will relieve with rest.
b. The patient’s Pain will relieve by taking Isordil Sublingual.
c. The Patient’s pain increased by breathing
d. The Patient’s pain will not relieve with rest or Isordil.
1. Post operative Patient complain of infected wound after 24 hours from the surgery day, you can found in the wound site:a. redness
b. swelling
c. bad odor
d. all of the answer are rights
[COLOR="red"]2. how you will intervene to relieve swelling lower extremity with cast for 4 days?
[/
COLOR]a. change the cast.
b. Call the doctor
c. Elevate the extremityd. Give message

3. patient with blood infusion, you found it with fever after the infusion begin with 19 minutes. The right action is:
a. stop infusion immediately.
b. Call the doctor who incharge.
c. Continue blood infusion with slow rate.
d. a+b
4. The inferior vena cava bring the deoxygenated blood to heart via:
a.right ventricle b. lift ventricle
c. right atrium
d. lift atrium

5. The artery which supply the myocardial muscle with oxygen and nutrient, called:
a. carotid
b. anterior vena cava
c. pulmonary artery
d. coronary arteries
6. One of The immediate action to a patient with Myocardial infraction is to give patient:
[U]
a. Paracetamol.
Morphine
c. Oxygen
d. B+C\


7. Patient with burn in his back and abdomen, then the percent of the burn is :
a. 18 %
b. 36 %
c. 27 %
d. 45 %

8. What is the first priority to do in a patient with burn?
a. check pulse
b. check breathing
c. give sedative
d. apply cold compresses

9. you can say the patient is Full oriented, if he is oriented to :
a. place
b. time
c. person
d. all of them
10. The best cannula used when you want to give blood intravenous to an adult patient is :
a. Yellow cannula
b. Blue cannula
c. Pink cannula
d. Green cannula
11. The patient told you that he still feels with a back pain after the administration of sedative drug I.M by an hour, you think that he is lying. What is the right action you must take it?
a. Ignore his complain.
b. Inform the Doctor
c. Give him extra dose from drug.
d. Tell him that he is not feel pain and he have delusion.

12. doctor order is to give a drug to the patient q.i.d., the best times to give this drug is at like schedule :
a. 6am-12pm-6am-12pm
b. 3am-9am-3pm-9pm
c. 6am-2pm-10pm
d. 6 am -6pm

13. The medication order is to give pethedine 100 stat. that mean you will give it :1.
now for one time
2. two times as needed
3. three times daily
4. once daily



14. if you find that the patients output is more than his intake from the fluids since three days, you will suspect that he is complain or will complain from:
a. edema
b. dehydration
c. its normal result
d. give him lasix

15. if you read in the medication chart beside the drug name this abbreviation ( N/A), you will know that this drug is :
a. stopped
b. increase the dose
c. decrease the dose
d. the drug is Not Available
16.
you will use the Oropharengeal tube when the patient is :
a. cannot talk
b. unconscious patient
c. patient with N.G. tube
d. Patient with sever throat pain

17. R.T.A. Patient in E.R. , he start complain from Increase Pulse rate, Low blood pressure, and decrease level of consciousness, you must think that he develop:a. Urinary Tract Infection

b. Shockc. Coma
d. Respiratory distress.

18. “Code Blue “, means :a. Patient with arrest
b. Patient with hemorrhage
c. Patient in O.R
d. Patient with blood infusion

19. you find a victim arrested in the street according to car accident, you found a clear fluid dropping from his ear, and you must give him rescues breathing, what you will do?
1. head tilt, chin lift
2. chest thrust
3. jaw thrust
4. put him in left side position

20. you heard the nurse talk to the doctor and he said “ the patient has macro Haematuria”. What he means by haematuria?
a. Difficult of breathing
b. Difficulty of urination
c. The urine seems bloody
d. The patient cannot urinate.

21. You found the cardiac monitor show straight line in a sleeping patient in CCU, what you will do?
a. call for CPR
b. give cardiac massage
c. check cardiac monitor leads
d. give cardiac shock

22. before you send the patient to the operation room, you must check :
a. is the patient fasting?
b. Did he sign the consent form?
c. Did he shaved the site of operation?
d. All of them

23. the yellow hard containers in the hospital used to waste which of the following?
a. used gauze, cotton.
b. Sharp waste
c. Used papers and fluids.
d. All of them.

24. if u know that the patient is complain from quadriplegia, you will know that he have weakness in :
a. his arms
b. his legs
c. his legs and arms.
d. One arm and one leg.

25. Carotid artery is located in :
a. the nick
b. the head
c. the legs
d. the abdomen

27. The route of drug administration that provides the dependable absorption is :-
a. Oral
b. Intermuscular
c. Subcuntaneous
d. Intravenous

28. medication is being administered , the most accurate way to verify a patient’s identification is to :-
a. call the patient by the name in the drug card or cardex
b. ask the patient to state his or her name
c. ask another nurse to identify the patient
d. check the patient’s identification bracelet.


29. when the nurse is administering medications , the patient informs the nurse that the tablet usually received is a different color . the nurse should :-
a. insist that the patient take the tablet she poured
b. have the patient take the tablet & then recheck the order
c. leave the medication at the bedside & recheck the order
d. recheck the order before giving the drug
e. verify the medication with the physician .

30. all of the following are examples of mild allergy symptoms that may occur in response to antibiotic therapy except
a. urticaria ( redness)
b. rash
c. wheezing
d. (pruritus ( itching

31. for which client is the oral rout of administration appropriate ?a. client D who has vomited twice in the last hour .
b. client E who is complaining of a sever headache
c. client F whose assessment reveals an absence of bowel sounds.
d. Client G who is only responsive to painful stimuli.

32. Which of the following organs is a primary site for the metabolism of drugs ?
a. Heart
b. Liver
c. Pancreas
d. Intestine

33. Mr .Jonnes has the following order : ASA ( Aspirin ) 5 gr p.o bid pc . which of the following is the best interpretation & correct scheduling of this order ?
a. Give him ASA 5 gr at 9 : 00 am after breakfast )& 6:00 pm).
b. Give him ASA 5 gr at 10 :00 , 2 :00 & , 6:00 round the clock .
c. Give him ASA 5 gr per intramuscular injection at 9 : 00 at 3:00 pm .
d. Question the order as it is too high a dose then schedule it for 7 : 30 am & 5:00 pm .

34. Mrs. Higgins has refused to take her ASA ordered by the physician . the first action of the nurse should be
a. Notify the physician of the refusal
b. Chart the refusal on the medication administration record.
c. Find out why she doesn’t want to take the ASA
d. Tell her she must take the ASA because the physician has ordered it .
35. a medication order should never be implemented if : -
a. the nurse doesn’t know the physician .
b. the nurse doesn’t know the patient’s history .
c. the nurse Questions any part of the order
d. the nurse did not know witness the writing of the order .

36. ORDERD : penicillin 400.000 u IM nowAVAILABLE : penicillin 800.000 u per 2 cc
How many ml should you give ?
a. 2 .ml
b.1 ml
c. 0.2 ml
d. 0.4 ml

37. ORDERD : deltasone 7.5 mg now .
AVAILABLE : deltasone 2.5 mg scored tablets .
How many should you give ?
a. 3 tablets
b. 1 tablets
c. tablets ½ 2
d. tablets ½ 1

38. 20 minutes after receiving her noon dose of oral medication , Mrs. Rooney vomits . to assure accuracy in medication administration the first thing nurse Mulligan should do is to :-
a. report the situation to the head nurse
b. contact the physician
c. administer another dose of medication
d. examine the vomits for signs of medication

39. which of the following routs for drug administration is the most common , least expensive , safest , and best tolerated by patient ?
a. intramuscular
b. topical
c. oral
d. intravenous

40. you arrives in Mr. Rich’s room with the ASA [ aspirin ] he requested for the headache . you find him in the bathroom . you are very busy & don’t have time to wait . you should :
a. tell him you will return and take the medication with you
b. ask him to com out of the bathroom immediately
c. ask his roommate to give him the ASA
d. leave the medication on the over-the-bed table since ASA is a nonprescription drug

41. you are preparing to administer Mrs. Carter’s eye drops . the correct position for her to assume would be :
a. head titled forward , placing the drops in the conjunctival sac.
b. head titled backward , placing the drops in the lower conjunctival sac.
c. head titled forward , placing the drops directly on the eyeball .
d. head titled backward , placing the drops directly on the eyeball.




42. to instill drops in the adult patient , the ear canal is opened by pulling the ear :-
a. up and back
b. down and back
c. up and forward
d. back and forward

43. The nurse correctly administer an IM injection a ……………… degree angle
a. 15
b. 30
c. 45
d. 90

44. when giving medication , the label should be checked 3 times . which of the following is not one of these times ?
a. when the nurse reaches for the container
b. immediately prior to pouring medication
c. when the nurse located the drug on the shell
d. when replacing the container to the drawer or shelf .

45. which of the following is the reason for using the Z tract technique for injections ?
a. for medication of over 5cc in quantity
b. for medication that is highly irritating to subcutaneous tissue
c. for medication that stains the tissue
d. for medication that cannot be given orally

46. which of the following orders is complete :-
a. ampicillin 250mg IM q12hrs x 10 days
b. Maalox 30 cc po
c. humulin R insulin SQ in AM & noon
d. (OPV ( oral polio vaccine ) 0.5 cc

47. Mrs. Kelly tells the nurse that her arm is sore from an injection she received early in the day . she states “ the nurse gave me a shot , and I heard her say that the needle was a 25 gauge . isn’t that too big for a local injection ?” . your best response would be : “a. a 25 gauge needle is a small needle , but it can cause som discomfort . let me see your arm .”
b. really, Mrs. Kelly, no once gets hurts with a 25 gauge needle . you are over –reacting to the shot “
c. a 25 gauge needle is very small . you are just nervous about the injection.”
d. a 25 gauge needle is very small. So you are wrong about the pain from the injection.”

48. Mrs. Davis has a written order from her physician for Demerol 100 mg stat . which of the following best explain this order ?
a. give it needed
b. give once when needed .
c. give once immediately
d. give once when specified

49. while checking Mr. Appendectomy’s vital signs , he requests his “ medication for the pain in my incision “ the vital signs were :
BP 100/60 , T – 98.4 F , P – 66 , RR – 10 .you decide he may not have the Morphine sulfate injection at this time due to witch vital signs reading ?
a. blood pressure
b. pulse
c. respiration
d. temperature

50. after withdrawing the needle from the tissue when administering an ID injection you :-
a. apply firm pressure to the site with your thumb .
b. do not rewipe the site
c. gently wipe the site
d. massage the site vigorously

51. Mr. Harvey , age 54 , is admitted with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure secondary to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease [COPD] . the physician orders sublingual nitroglycerin , 0.4 mg p.r.n , for chest pain , whin administering the nitroglycerin , the nurse should :-
a. tell Mr. Harvey to hold the tablet under his tongue and let it dissolve .
b. tell Mr. Harvey to swallow the tablet with water .
c. apply nitroglycerin ointment to Mr. Harvey’s chest .
d. mix the nitroglycerin with applesauce for Mr. Harvey to eat

52. asking the patient if he is allergic to any medication is a part of the ……………
phase of the nursing process ?
A. assessment
B. planning
C. implementation
D. evaluation

53. teaching the patient about the medication is a part of the …………… phase of the nursing process ?
A. assessment
B. planning
C. implementation
D. evaluation

54. a nurse is unable to read the label on a bottle of liquid medication because the label is stained from spillage . the nurse knows that the correct procedure is to :-
A. ask the charge nurse to verify the medication in the bottle and apply a new label .
B. smell and test the medication and apply a new label if certain of the contents .
C. empty the contents down the drain and notify the charge and the pharmacist.
D. Send the bottle back to the pharmacy to be relabeled .


55. Mr. Walker will receive regular insulin . the nurse monitors for the onist of action in approximately ------------
A. 5 to 10 minutes .
B. 150to 20 minutes
C. 30to 60 minutes
D. 1 to 2 hours .

56. is it necessary for the nurse to wear gloves during administration of an intermittent feeding through a G-tube ?
A. yes , because it is a sterile procedure .
B. yes , because universal precautions must be maintained .
C. no , because it is not a sterile procedure .
D. no , because there is no danger of contact with body fluid if the procedure is performed correctly .

57. to prepare the skin for injection the nurse would use :
A. friction with back and forth motions at the site with alcohol swab .
B. friction and alcohol swab moving from outer edge to center of site .
C. friction and alcohol swab with circular motions and palpate site gently with finger pad before injection .
D. friction and circular motions with alcohol swab from center of site outward.

58. IM injection into the deltoid muscle should be limited to :-
A. 2.5 ml of solution
B. 2 ml of solution
C. 1 ml of solution
D. 0.5 ml of solution

59. a primary concern when giving heparin SC is to prevent :
A. pain and bruising .
B. pain and bleeding
C. bleeding and bruising
D. injecting a vein .

60. the type of needle selected for the ( dorsogluteal ) intramscular ( IM ) injections would be based on :-
1) the size of the patient [ e.g., obese versus debilitated ]
2) the viscosity of the antibiotic .
3) the position of the patient .
4) the volume of medication .
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1,2,3
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2
61. the largest gauge needle of the following is :-
A. 19 gauge
B. 20 gauge
C.. 21 gauge
D. 22 gauge
62. Optimum normal urine out put hourly to an adult :
A. 10cc
B. 25cc
C. 50cc
D. 100cc
63. scurvy is a deficiency of :
A. Vit a
B. Vit b
C. Vit c
D. Vit d
64. Specific gravity of urine to have a normal fluid balance
A. 1.005
B. 1.015
C. 1.030
D. 1.020

65. 12 hours after delivery the fundus is at the level of
A. one fingerbreadth below the umbilicus .
B. one fingerbreadth above the umbilicus .
C. at the level of umbilicus.
D. Below symphysis pubis

66. In dystocia the ,mother should be watched for :-
A. Post partum haemorrhage .
B. Hypertension .
C. Cord proplase .
D. fetal death .

67. in the first trimester of pregnancy the vaccination to avoid :-
A. polio
B. rubella .
C. measles .
D. small pox .

68. in fetal circulation , the oxygenated blood placenta travels via :-A. umbilical artery
B. umbilical vein .
C. doctus arteriosus .
D. ductus venosus .

69. first stage of labor ends with :-
A. pain occurs .
B. dilation of cervix 10 cm
C. delivery of the baby
D. delivery of the placenta

70. an electrolyte deficiency that affect the heart muscular activity :-A. k
B. cal
C. Na
D. mg

71. The most vital immediate observation to a new born baby is :-A. Cardiac rate
B. Respiration rate .
C. Color
D. Tone

72. Signs of dehydration :-
A. Loss of skin turgor .
B. Low body temperature
C. High body temperature
D. Sweating

73. Common cause of death in burns :-
A. Hemorrhage
B. Neurogenic shock
C. Sepsis
D. Hypovolemic shock
74. The difference in close & open fracture is that , in open fracture you have to watch for :-
A. Infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. Inflammation
D. Pain

75. Epinephrine is not given via :-
A. IV
B. Orally
C. Parentally
D. Intracardiac
76. Ultra sound used :-
A. To detect fetal position
B. To detect diameter of fetal head
C. To detect placenta abnormalities
D. All of the above .
77. To prevent oral mucosa infection q4h , instruct patient to use :-
A. Warm saline gargle
B. Glycerin oil
C. Antibiotic
D. Warm gargle with mineral oil

78. One of the vital care after cholecystectomy :-
A. Bed rest
B. Low fat diet
C. Low Cholesterol diet
D. Low protein diet

79. X-ray of upper GI tract , the nurse should instruct the patient to take :-
A. Laxative previous day
B. NPO 8-12 hours
C. High fat diet
D. Normal diet

80. INORDER TO ADMINISTER 5 ML SYRUP TO PATIENT , WE USE A :-A. ½ tsp
B. 1 tsp
C. ½ table spoon
D. 1 table spoon

81. A very serious complication of hysterectomy :-
A. vaginal pain
B. vaginal discharge
C. abdominal distention
D. no urine out put

82. Deep breathing and coughing exercise done at :-
A. angle of 90 degree
B. angel 45 degree
C. lie laterally
D. semi-fowler’s position
83. Patient with spinal cord injury must be :-
A. not to move at all
B. log rolled
C. turn the back with support in the head

84. After spinal anesthesia , watch fore :-
A. hypotention / headache
B. fowler’s position to the optimum
C. numbness of extremities
D. analgesic

85. The cure for chronic renal failure is :-
A. dialysis
B. kidney transplant
C. diuretics
D. force fluids

86. Acetyl salycilate [ aspirin ] immediate side effect :-
A. tinnitis
B. nausea & vomiting
C. abdominal pain
D. vomiting & diarrhea

87. digoxin can be with held to a patient with an apical pulse rate of below :-
A. 45
B. 60
C. 70
D. 80

88. the best time to collect urine for culture :-
A. early morning awaking sample .
B. 30 minutes after voiding
C. 30 minutes after fluid
D. double voided

89. The postpartal patient should be watched closely during the first hours after delivery for :-
A. Uterine contraction
B. Vaginal bleeding
C. Hypotention
D. All of the above
90. The major goals for the burn patient in the first 48 hours after burn , is that the patient
A. Has fluid and electrolyte balance maintained
B. Develops no contractures
C. Dose not develop hyperthermia
D. Develops minimal scarring

[الجُمان]

91. The normal fasting blood glucose rang mg per 100 ml . of venous blood is :
1. 60-80
2. 80-120
3. 100-150
4. 100-200

92. before irrigating a client’s NGT the nurse must first :-
a. assess breath sounds
b. instill 15 ml. Of normal saline
c. ausculate for bowel sounds
d. check the tube for placement

93. the best method of preventing the spread of infection is :-
a. isolating all patients suspected of having an infection
b. wearing rubber gloves when performing all nursing procedures
c. washing the hands thoroughly before & after each contact with a patient
d. sterilizing the hands with strong germicide at least once a day

94. when caring for a client who has an open reduction and internal fixation of hip , the nurse encourages active leg and foot exercise of the unaffected leg every 2 hours to help to :-
a. reduce leg discomfort .
b. maintain muscle strength .
c. prevent formation of clots .
d. limit venous inflammation

95. when administering an antibiotic or a vaccine , the nurse must be alert for the possibility of :-
a. overdoses and CNS depression
b. hypersensitivity and possible anaphylaxis
c. sings of increasing infection
d. orthostatic hypotension


96. immediately after a child is admitted with acute bacterial meningitis , the nurse should plan to :-
a. assess the child’s vital signs every 3 hours
b. administer oral antibiotic medication as ordered
c. check the child’s level of consciousness every hour
d. restrict parental visiting until isolation is discontinued
97. when assessing the unconscious victim for pulselessness , which of the following is the best artery to chick :-
a. radial
b. femoral
c. brachial
d. carotid
98. common signs and symptoms of jaundice include:-
a. ascites
b. dermatitis
c. icteric sclera
d. dark-colored stools


99. patient with head injuries are not given sedative because these drugs may :-
a. produce coma
b. depress the patient’s respiration
c. mask the patient’s symptoms
d. lead to cerebral hemorrhage




100. in treating puncture wounds , the first priority is to :-
a. stop the bleeding b. cleans the wound
c. give prophylactic treatment aginst tetanus
d. remove the object from the wound


101. ones the bleeding site has been determined , the first emergency measure to institute during hemorrhage would be to :-
a. apply a firm – pressure dressing
b. apply direct , firm – pressure over the bleeding area or the artery involved
c. apply a tourniquet just proximal to the wound
d. elevate the extremity


102. nursing measures that can be used to lower core body temperature include :-
a. immersing the patient in cold water
b. placing the patient on a hypothermic blanket
c. administering chilled saline enemas
d. all of the above measures


103. the female hormone that induces changes in endometrium to prepare uterus for implantation of a fertilized ovum and maintenance of a pregnancy is called :-
a. aldosterone
b. testoterone
c. progesterone
d. estrogen


104. for a hearing – impaired client to hear a conversation , a nurse should :-
a. use a louder tone of voice than normal
b. use visual aids such as the hands and eyes when speaking
c. approach a client quietly from behind before speaking
d. select a public area to have a conversation


105. when dealing with a client with aphasia , the nurse should remember to :-
a. wait for him to communicate
b. speak loudly to ensure that the massage is received
c. speak from the client’s side to avoid overload
d. encourage writing of massages


106. Immunization should be started when child is :-
A. 6 months
B. 2 months
C. 1 months
D. 1 week

107. the most reliable method used for sterilizing hospital equipment to be free of spores and bacteria is :-
A. soaking in strong chemical
B. washing and drying it thoroughly after use
C. applying steam under pressure in an autoclave
D. boiling the equipment


108. nursing care of a child admitted with acute glomerulonephritis , should be directed toward :-
A. forcing fluids
B. promoting diuresis
C. enforcing strict bed rest
D. eliminating sodium from diet


109.the nurse empties a portable wound suction device when it is only half full because :-
A. it is easier and faster to empty the unit when it is only half full
B. this facilitates a more accurate measurement of drainage output .
C. their negative pressure in the unit lessens as fluid accumulates in it , interfering with further drainage
D. as fluid collects in the unit it exerts positive pressure , forcing drainage back up the tubing and into the wound .

110. a patient develops a small decubitus ulcer on the sacral area . the nurse should plan to deal with this problem by :-
A. keeping the area dry
B. applying moist dressing
C. providing a low caloric diet
D. keep the patient on the right side

111. when administering heparin , the substance the nurse would keep available as the antidote is :-
A. magnesium sulphate
B. protamine sulphateC. calcium gloconate
D. vitamin k





112. the main effect of excess calcium on the myocardium is :-
A. spastic contraction
B. cardiac flaccidity
C. tetany
D. bradycardia


113. which of the following vitamin increase the retention of calcium and phosphorous ions in the blood :-
A. Vit A
B. Vit B12
C. Vit. D
D. Vit C


114. If a SC injection is in to which level of tissue must the solution be released :-
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Subcutaneous
D. Any of the above

115.A critical nursing measure to employ with a patient on any sulphonamide drug is to :-
A. Monitor blood pressure every 30 minutes
B. Force fluids
C. Watch for tinnitus.
D. Monitor electrolytes

116. The primary cause of decubitus ulcer is :-
A. Excessive perspiration
B. Pressure on bony area
C. Poor nutrition and inadequate fluid intake
D. Inability to control voiding

117. Contra indications to the use of anticoagulant include :-
a. Blood dyscrasias
b. Liver or kidney disease
c. Peptic ulcer
d. All of the above conditions

118. Progesterone is primarily used for the treatment of :-
A. Hypertension of pregnancy
B. Abnormal uterine bleeding
C. Unovulation
D. Hypermenorrhagia


119. The average daily amount if water eliminated from the kidneys as urine is :-
A. 500 cc
B. 1500 cc
C. 2000 cc
D. 1200 cc
the normal average is between 1200 – 1500 cc


120. surgical patients should be taught to perform leg exercises for the main purpose of :-
A. preventing muscle atrophy
B. preventing joint degeneration
C. improving circulation
D. preventing boredom


121. When a patient is vomiting post-operatively , the most important nursing objective is to prevent :-
A. dehydration
B. aspiration
C. rupture of suture line
D. metabolic acidosis


122. which of the following is an appropriate diet for a patient with congestive heart failure :-
A. low-calorie , high-residue diet with no caffeine
B. low-calorie , low- residue diet with low Na
C. high-calorie , low-fat , low-protein diet
D. high –protein , no fat , no carbohydrate diet


123. To obtain a truly estimation of the patient’s average blood pressure , your nursing assessment should include :-
A. only one blood pressure reading
B. serial reading , which should be taken at the same time each day for 7 days
C. serial reading , which should be taken every 2 hours over an 8 hour period for 2 days
D. blood pressure reading on both arms should be taken sitting and standing once a day for 2 days


124. dietary control of patients with ulcers should include :-
A. taking antacids every hour
B. increase roughage in the diet
C. eliminate highly seasoned food
D. increasing amount of carbohydrate


125.During physical examination , the part of the kidney may be felt on deep palpation is :-
A. lower pole of the right kidney .
B. lower pole of the left kidney .
C. entire right kidney .
D. right and left kidney


126. The major nursing goals post-operative care of the cataract patient is to :-
A. prevent hemorrhage and stress on the sutures
B. prevent hemorrhage and eye stress .
C. prevent increased intro-ocular pressure and to promote better visual acuity
D. promote decreased intro-ocular pressure and to maintain a visible lens .


127. which of the following lab. test must be done on a patient with major burns , prior to administration of antibiotics :-
A. complete blood account
B. wound culture C. type and cross match
D. sensitivity studies


128. for how many days after a facial wound are sutures usually left in place ?
A. 3 days
B. 10 days
C. 14 days
D. 7 days

129. To control bleeding from the radial artery , pressure to be applied directly above the :-
A. Thumb on the flexor surface of the arm .
B. Thumb on the extensor surface of the arm .
C. Little finger on the flexor surface of the arm .
D. Little finger on the extensor surface of the arm .


130. All patients taking tranquilizers must be warned that they may feel :-A. Anxious
B. Nauseated
C. Clumsy
D. Drowsy
131. Witch of the following indicates placental separation after delivery :-
A. A globular – shaped uterus
B. A sudden rise of the funds
C. A sudden gush of blood
D. All of the above signs

132. If a patient whose membranes ruptures during labor and prior to descent of the head , the nurse must assess the patient fore :-
A. Hemorrhage
B. Pain
C. Cord prolapsed
D. Uterine inertia

133. A must important nursing measure in the prevention of thrombophebitis for the post-partum patient is :-
A. Elastic stocking
B. Early ambulation
C. Anticoagulant
D. Isometric exercise


134. As a child increases age , cardiac and respiratory rate should :-A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain unchanged
D. Stabilize at the adult level

135. An excellent diet suggest for an elderly patient is :-
A. High-calorie , low-fat , high carbohydrate diet
B. low-calorie , low-fat , lot of fruits and vegetables
C. High-calorie , high-fat , high protein diet
D. low-calorie , high-fat , high protein diet


136. in opened and close fracture , the nurse should be aware of which of the following when open fracture is presented ?
A. mal-alignment
B. infection
C. bleeding
D. pain


137. nursing consideration for a child with osteomyelitis should include :-A. relieving of pain
B. maintaining antibiotic therapy
C. maintaining adequate nutrition
D. all of the above



138.how long should the affected extremity be kept elevated after the application of cast ?
A. until the cast is dry
B. when the leg is no longer painful
C. for 24 hours after casting
D. for 72 hours after casting


139. when the skin , whole epidermis , dermis and the underlying structures are affected in a burn , it is called :-
A. first degree burn
B. second degree burn
C. third degree burn

140. the most common and serious complication of burns that often lead to death is :-
A. hypovolemic shock
B. hypothermia
C. sepsis .
D. Infection

141. before giving antibiotic to a burn patient which of the following should be done first:-
A. wound culture
B. blood tests
C. wound dressing
D. sensitivity testing .
142. when the patient is diaphoretic , there is tachycardia and decrease blood pressure , he is experiencing :-
A. neurogenic shock.
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Hypothermia
D. Septicemia


143. What type of isolation precaution is indicated for a burn patient ?A. Standard precaution
B. Reverse isolation
C. Proper isolation
D. Disposal of sharps


144. Which is the best aid to prevent breast cancer ?
A. Teaching women how to perform self breast exam
B. Public knowledge about chemotherapy
C. To eat fruits and vegetable only
D. Encourage women to perform self breast examination monthly

145. In cute stage of osteomyelities , the child should be :-
A. Confined to bed .
B. Up with crutches .
C. Up in a wheelchair
D. Up and about


146. Which one should the nurse monitor first in an infant ?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Cardiac rate
C. Pulse rate
D. Motor functioning

[الجُمان]

147. When assessing neonates hydration , the nurse should check for the skin’s :-
A. Elasticity
B. Tone
C. Moisture
D. Color

148. Cerebral palsy can be detected in which of the following stage of child’s life ?
a. During the early months
b. When the child is walking
c. When the child is playing

Maternity and child health care

149. What is the normal weight of the new born according to statistics ?A. 3700 gms
B. 3200 gms.
C. 2500 gms
D. 4500 gms


150. when the head of the baby is already out in a cervix , the nurse should do which of the following first ?
A. ask the mother to push more
B. check if the baby is breathing
C. wait for the baby to come out

151. FHR is heard clearly on fetal :-
A. head
B. back
C. abdomen


152. soon after the delivery of head of the baby the nurse should :-
A. suction mouth and oral cavity
B. wait for the delivery of the baby
C. ask her to push

153. the fetus will get immunity from :-
A. lymph system
B. Placenta
C. Both of them
D. Non of them

154. diet and nutritional status of pregnancy should be encouraged :-
A. first trimester
B. second trimester
C. third trimester

155.when the bag of water ruptures , the nurse should watch for which of the following :-
A. cord prolapse
B. bleeding
C. fetal death
D. fetal distress
E. respiratory distress


156. during labor a mother experienced dystocia , which of the following should the nurse watch out for ?
A. fetal death
B. hemorrhage
C. cord prolapse
D. Hypertention


157. which are the signs of placenta separation ?
A. rising of the fundus
B. sudden gush of blood
C. globular shape of the uterus
D. all of the above

158. during hyperthermia which of the following should be done as measure to lower the temp. of the baby ?
A. immerse baby in normal heat water
B. give cold enema
C. external cooling measures
D. all of the above


159. premature labor occurs during :-
A. between 20-36 weeks
B. between 36-42 weeks
C. before 20 weeks
D. first 12 weeks


160. which of the following hormones prepares the uterus for the arrival of a fertilized ovum for implantation ?
A. progesterone
B. estrogen
C. FHS
D. NON OF THE ABOVE


161. What is the most common complication after hysterectomy ?A. Abdominal distention
B. Hemorrhage
C. Vaginal pain
D. Vaginal discharge


162. When does ovulation occur?
A. Between 10-12 days
B. Between 12-16 days
C. Between 18-21 days


163. Diphtheria vaccine is being given during infancy and repeated :-
A. Booster dose at age 6
B. Every after 5 years
C. Every after 10 years .
D. No booster is recommended


164. There is no vaccination for :-
A. Small pox
B. Measles
C. DPT
D. Polio

165. The end of the first stage of labor is :-
A. When the cervix starts to dilate
B. Full dilatation of cervix up to 10 cm
C. Birth of baby
D. Separation of placenta


166. One sign of vaginal infection is :-
A. Pain
B. Itchiness
C. Foul smelling discharges


167. One post-partum nursing responsibility for preventing vaginal bleeding is :-
A. Put patient on trendelenburg position .
B. Regulate IV fluid with oxytosis
C. do fundal massage frequently

168. Fetal heart tone is best heard at :-
A. anterior part of the fetus
B. posterior back of the fetus


169. During pregnancy iron supplement starts on :-
A. first trimester
B. second trimester
C. third trimester
b

170.72 hours post placental delivery , fundic height will be :-
A. 1-2 finger above the umbilical
B. 1-2 finger below the umbilical
C. on the level of umbilical
b

171. in the hospital , isolation is indicated if the patient :-
A. staphylococcal pneumonia
B. local staphylococcal infection
C. puerperal fever
D. all are indicatedd

172. at which age is administration of the measles vaccine the most effective :-
A. 2 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 15 months



173. the postpartal patient should be watched closely during the first hours after delivery for:-
A. uterine contraction
B. vaginal bleeding
C. hypotension
D. all of the above
174. premature labor is the labor that occurs between :-
A. 20-36 week gestation
B. 28-37 week gestation
C. 30-38 week gestation
D. any of the above

175. which of the following complication is life threatening after a penetrating abdominal injury :-
A. Hemorrhage .
B. Peritonitis
C. Abdominal distention


176. WHICH OF THE FOLLOEING IS THE IMMEDIATE TREATMENT FOR PUNCTURED WOUND ?
A. CLEANS the wound
B. Stop the bleeding
C. Remove the object from the wound
D. Give prophylactic anti-tetanus


177. When there is malfunction of the glomerular filter there is high secretion of:-
A. Urea
B. Creatinine
C. Potassium
D. Protein

178. In a nephritic syndrome , aside from clinical manifestation , what else can the patient complain upon consultation ?
A. Protienurea
B. Oliguria
C. albuminuria
D. polyuria

179. ECT is indicated to treat :
A. psychotic depression
B. obsessive compulsive disorder
C. neurosis



180. After taking tranquilizer ,a nurse must warn the patient that he may experience :-
A. nausea
B. hallucination
C. drowsiness

181. One of the signs and symptoms of paralytic ileus is:-
A. increased peristalsis
B. increased gas formation
C. absence of bowel sounds
182. The most important nursing responsibility following head injury is :-
A. monitor vital signs and record
B. monitor GCS –Glasgow coma scale
C. observe for restlessness


183. Post –operative prevention of thrombophebitis :-
A. leg exercise in bed
B. passive exercise by nurse to patient
C. early ambulation

184. nursing management which is contraindicated for thrombophelbitis :-
A. encourage early ambulation
B. deep breathing and coughing exercise
C. massage the operative site i.e. leg calf muscle

185. what will you observe following spinal anesthesia ?
a. nausea and vomiting
b. restlessness
c. hypotension and headache
186. second degree burns involve:-
A. skin , dermis
B. dermis , subcutaneous , muscle
C. epidermis , dermis , subcutaneous
187. within 48 hours of burns , management is focused on :-
A. prevention of infection
B. hydration

188. best diagnostic test for suspected leukemia is:-
A. CBC
B. Blood chemistry
C. Bone marrow aspiration

189. Nursing responsibility on leukemia :-
A. Ensure safety
B. Prevent infection
C. Obtain blood samples regular

190. Immediate management for reaction during blood transfusion :-
A. Slow down the rate
B. Stop blood transfusion
C. Change blood transfusion with a new pack

191. How many liters of oxygen can be given with nasal canula ?
A. 1-2 liters
B. 1-10 liters
C. 1-6 liters .

192. destruction of bacterial is called :-
A. medical asepsis
B. surgical asepsis
C. disinfections .

193. first management of unconscious victim is :-
A. administer shock
B. determine unresponsiveness
C. administer oxygen .
D. give cardiac massage.


194. Nursing responsibility before giving Digoxin:-
A. Check BP
B. Check apical rate
C. Instruct patient to do deep breathing


195. Treatment of scurvy :-
a. Vit.b supplement
b. Vit.c supplement
c. Iron supplement


196. Atropine so4 is given pre-operative to :-
a. relax the patient
b. decrease the secretion
c. prevent intra-operative bleeding


197. when the patient is diagnosed with wilm,s tumor , the nurse should :-
a. always keep bed rails up
b. avoid palpation of abdomen
c. observe foe nausea and vomiting


198. a patient with asthma is receiving intravenous aminophylline .the adverse reaction for which the nurse should observe is :-
a. oliguria
b. braducardia
c. hypotension
d. hypertension

199. The force with which the blood is pushing against the arterial walls when the ventricles are contracting is called:-
a. pulse pressure
b. pressure gradient
c. systolic pressure
d. diastolic pressure

200. acide-base balance refers to the regulation of the concentration of:-
a. hydrogen ions
b. sodium
c. bicarbonates ions
d. plasma protein

201. carbohydrates are stored in the body in the form of :-
a. glucose
b. glucagons
c. glycogen
d. glucose 6 phosphate

202. the period in which communicable is most contagious is the :-a. incubation period
b. period of illness
c. convalescent period
d. all are equally contagious


203. spinal fluid for culture :-
a. can be stored in the refrigerator for 48 hours
b. can survive refrigeration for only 4-6 hours
c. must be examined immediately
d. will survive in a holding medium for 72 hours


204. an enjection the gluteal site must be given in which quadrant of the buttocks :-
a. upper – inner quadrant
b. upper-outer quadrantc. lower – inner quadrant
d. lower – outer quadrant


205. the most important rout of drug excretion for nonvolatile substances is:-
a. lungs
b. kidneys
c. feces
d. liver


206. atropine is capable of producing which of the following effects :-
a. dilated pupils
b. decreased bronchial secretion
c. blocked stimulation of the vagus nerve
d. all of the above

207. the sulfonamide drugs remin the treatmint of the control of :-a. respiratory infections
b. skin infections
c. urinary tract infections
d. gastrointestinal infections


208. The drug of choice for treatment of an angina pectoris :-
a. nitroglycerin
b. quinidine
c. epinephrine
d. dopamine

209. any one using antihistamine should be cautioned that antihistamine may cause:-
a. drowsiness
b. hypertinsion
c. tachycardia
d. anaphylaxis


210. the most frequent causes of death in pneumonia patients are shock and:-
a. pulmonary embolism
b. pulmonary edema
c. pulmonary consolidation
d. atelectasis


211. the most important factor in the promotion and maintenance of wound healing both during surgery and the postoperative period is :-
a. adequate fluid intake
b. proper administration of antibiotics
c. strict asepsis
d. frequent cleansing of the wound


212. the major complications of inhalation anesthesia which the nurse should be constantly aware of :-
a. circulatory depression only
b. circulatory and respiratory depression
c. respiratory and renal depression
d. renal and circulatory depression


213. if the skin must be shaven prior to surgery . ideally the preoperative shave be done:-
a. the night before
b. early in the morning of the surgery
c. no more than one hour before surgery
d. by the patient before entering


214. which of the following amounts of water per day should be ingested by the average person to maintain hydration :-
a. 500cc
b. 1000cc
c. 1200cc
d. 2500cc


215. in the internal environment , fluids make up what percent of body weight :-
a. 10 %
b. 20 %
c. 30 %
d. 70 %


216. in which of the following ways can ascorbic acid be administer ?
a. orally
b. IM
c. Diluted intravenous fluids
d. all of the above


217. the type of burn in which all the dermis and epidermis , is destroyed and there is involvement of underlying structures is called :-
a. superficial or first degree burn
b. partial thickness or second degree burn
c. full-thickness or third degree burn
d. fourth degree burn
[B]

218. while teaching diabetic patient to give himself insulin , you should stress that injections should not be given in any one spot more often than every:-
a. 36 hours

b. one week
c. two weeks
d. month


219. which of the following dietary restrictions are usually indicated to decrease edema in nephritic :-
a. high – protein , low – calorie , on sodium restrictive diet
b. high – protein , high – calorie , low on sodium diet
c. low– protein , low – calorie, high vitamin diet
d. low– protein, high – calorie , on sodium diet


220. following a sigmoidoscope , the patient should be observed for signs of hemorrhage and :-
a. fluid loss
b. performation
c. flatus
d. nausea


221. to avoid the possible development of heart diseases following rheumatic fever the patient must guard himself against infection :-
a. until the fever is gone
b. for one year
c. until sedimentation rat is normal
d. for the rest of his life



222. hypertension is a persistent elevation of systolic and diastolic pressure above:-
a. . 140/90 mmhg
b. 150/190 mmhg
c. 160/100 mmhg
d. 160/110 mmhg

223. After below knee amputation :-
a. keep the patient in semi fowler’s
b. stump to be evaluated
c. watch the site for bleeding

224. to collect urine c/s specimen , the most accurate method:-
a. catheterize the patient
b. mid stream urine
c. provide sterile bedpan and collect urine

225. the nurse should observe the patient receiving decradon:-
a. urinary stasis
b. hypotension
c. infection
d. weight loss

226. signs of septic shock :-
a. cool & clammy skin
b. bradicardia
c. warm & dry skin

227. oral contraceptive used for :-
a. once daily for 21 days
b. once daily for 18 days
c. once daily for 28 days

228. normal arterial O2 saturation :-
a. 85%
b. 92%
c. 97%
d. 100%

229. valve which control the blood flow from right atrium to right ventricle :-
a. bicuspid valve
b. tricuspid valve
c. mitral valve
d. pulmonary artery

230. the common complication after operation :-
a. fever
b. pulmonary edema
c. pulmonary embolism

[الجُمان]

Reproduction
Practice Questions
1. Which of the following is the location where fertilization occurs?
A. Ovaries
B. Vagina
C. Uterus
?D. Fallopian Tubes
2. Which of the following terms correspond with the phrase: a woman that is pregnant?
?A. Gravida
B. Parity
C. Spermatogonia
D. Zona pellucida
3. Which of the following sign's may indicate pregnancy?
?A. Chadwick's sign
B. Turner's sign
C. Virchow's sign
D. Kock's sign
4. Which of the following is not an associated change during the antepartum period?
A. Increased urination frequency
B. Increased respiratory requirements
?C. Decreased basal metabolic rate
D. Goodell's sign
5. Which of the following matches the definition: abnormal placenta development covering the cervix?
?A. Placenta Previa
B. Abruptio Placentae
C. Multigravida
D. Proliferative phase
6. Which of the following is not scored with the APGAR?
?A. 0
B. Heart Rate
C. Color
D. Tone
7. Which of these is not considered a T.O.R.C.H. infection?
A. Rubella
B. Herpes
C. Cytomegalovirus
?D. Croup
8. Which of the following develops into the ejaculatory duct and ductus deferens?
A. Paramesonephric duct
?B. Mesonephric duct
C. Sympathetic duct
D. Parasympathetic duct
9. Which of the following is the result of poor fusion between the paramesonephric ducts in females?
A. Placenta Previa
?B. Bicornuate uterus
C. Multigravida
D. Proliferative phase
10. Where does spermatogenesis occur?
?A. Seminiferous tubules
B. Corpus spongiosoma
C. Prostate gland
D. Scrotum
11. The tip of the sperm is called the ____.
A. Head
?B. Acrosome
C. Tail
D. Nucleus
12. Which of the following develops into: bone, connective tissue, blood, and the spleen?
A. Notochord
B. Endoderm
?C. Mesoderm
D. Ectoderm
13. Which of the following is not a germ layer during the 3rd week of development?
A. Mesoderm
B. Ectoderm
C. Endoderm
?D. Exoderm
14. The umbilical vein carries _____ blood.
A. Deoxygenated
?B. Oxygenated
15. Ovulation occurs during which of the following phases?
A. Menstrual
B. Secretory
?C. Proliferative
D. Follicle
16. Following fertilization the blastocyst secrets a hormone called?
?A. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
B. Oxytocin
C. FSH
D. LH
17. Progesterone is secreted from a female's _____ to help the implanted embryo and continue the pregnancy.
?A. Corpus luteum
B. Mesoderm
C. Endoderm
D. Thyroid
18. Which of the following is not appropriately matched with the term: Braxton Hicks contractions?
A. Painless
B. Intermittent contractions
?C. Edema
D. Irregular
19. If a newborn exhibits a heart rate of 80 bpm the APGAR score should be?
A. 0
?B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
20. If a newborn exhibits blue extremities and the body is pink the APGAR score should be?
A. 0
?B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer Key
1. D
2. A
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. A
7. D
8. B
9. B
10. A
11. B
12. C
13. D
14. B
15. C
16. A
17. A
18. C
19. B
20. B

Respiration
Practice Questions
1. Which of the following conditions correlate with the following information:
High pH
High HCO3
High BE
Neutral pCO2
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
?D. Metabolic alkalosis
2. Which of the following conditions correlate with the following information:
High pH
Neutral HCO3
Neutral BE
Low pCO2
?A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
3. Which of the following conditions correlate with the following information:
Low pH
Low HCO3
Low BE
Neutral pCO2
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
?C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
4. Which of the following information corresponds with a negative TB test?
?A. 0-4 mm induration at 48 hours
B. 0-5 mm induration at 48 hours
C. 0-6 mm induration at 48 hours
D. 0-7 mm induration at 48 hours
5. Which of the following is the most common type of lung cancer?
A. Large cell
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Oat cell
?D. Squamous cell
6. What cell type secrets surfactant?
A. Plasma cell
B. Type I alveolar cell
?C. Type II alveolar cell
D. Type III alveolar cell
7. Which of the following pulmonary term correlates with the definition: noted obstruction of the trachea or larynx.
A. Rhonchi
?B. Stridor
C. Wheezes
D. Vesicular
8. Normal values for pCO2 are considered:
A. 20-40 mm Hg
B. 25-30 mm Hg
C. 30-40 mm Hg
?D. 35-45 mm Hg
9. Normal values for HCO3 are considered:
A. 15-30 mEq/L
B. 20-35 mEq/L
?C. 22-26 mEq/L
D. 24-29 mEq/L
10. Pneumoncystis carinii infections are commonly treated with which of the following medications?
?A. Pentamidine
B. Allopurinol
C. Iorazepam
D. Chlorpropamide
11. Which of the following is not generally caused by COPD?
A. Pneumonia
B. Right sided heart failure
?C. Headaches
D. Cor pulmonale
12. Which of the following is not considered a COPD related disease?
A. Bronchiectasis
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Bronchitis
?D. Bronchial hypotension
13. Which of the following pulmonary term correlates with the definition: bronchospasm of the bronchial walls?
?A. Wheezes
B. Rhonchi
C. Stridor
D. Pleural Rub
14. Which of the following is considered an expectorant?
A. Acetylcysteine
?B. Guaifenesin
C. Theophylline
D. Epinephrine HCL
15. Which of the following is considered a bronchodilator?
A. Acetylcysteine
B. Guaifenesin
C. Theophylline
?D. Epinephrine HCL
16. Which of the following is considered a xanthine?
A. Acetylcysteine
B. Guaifenesin
?C. Theophylline
D. Epinephrine HCL
17. Which of the following is considered a mucolytic?
?A. Acetylcysteine
B. Guaifenesin
C. Theophylline
D. Epinephrine HCL
18. Which of the following matches the definition: The volume of air that can be inhaled following exhalation of tidal volume?
A. Expiratory reserve volume
?B. Inspiratory capacity
C. Inspiratory reserve volume
D. Vital capacity
19. Which of the following matches the definition: The maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after taking the deepest breath possible?
A. Expiratory reserve volume
B. Inspiratory capacity
C. Inspiratory reserve volume
?D. Vital capacity
20. The respiratory center is located in the ____ and ______.
A. Midbrain and pons
?B. Pons and Medulla oblongata
C. Midbrain and Medulla oblongata
D. Pons and Hypothalamus
Answer Key
1. D
2. A
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. D
9. C
10. A
11. C
12. D
13. A
14. B
15. D
16. C
17. A
18. B
19. D
20. B









Syndromes
Practice Questions
1. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: A failure of neutrophils to generate an immune response and lab values indicate elevated IgE levels?
A. Job's syndrome
B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C. Carcinoid syndrome
D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
2. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: right sided valvular disease and diarrhea?
A. Job's syndrome
B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C. Carcinoid syndrome
D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
3. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: lab values indicate elevated IgA levels and presence of thrombocytopenia?
A. Job's syndrome
B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C. Carcinoid syndrome
D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
4. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: presence of arthritis and commonly found in males?
A. Reiter's syndrome
B. Sjogren's syndrome
C. Kartagener's syndrome
D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
5. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: immotile sperm and presence of reoccurring sinusitis?
A. Reiter's syndrome
B. Sjogren's syndrome
C. Kartagener's syndrome
D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
6. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: presence of arthritis, xerophthalmia and commonly found in females?
A. Reiter's syndrome
B. Sjogren's syndrome
C. Kartagener's syndrome
D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
7. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: excessive movement occurring at joints and loose skin?
A. Reiter's syndrome
B. Sjogren's syndrome
C. Kartagener's syndrome
D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
8. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: hematuria, glomerulonephritis and pulmonary dysfunction?
A. Brown-Sequard syndrome
B. Thoracic outlet syndrome
C. Angelman's syndrome
D. Goodpasture's syndrome
9. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: presence of ipsilateral motor loss and contralateral spinothalmic tract damage?
A. Brown-Sequard syndrome
B. Thoracic outlet syndrome
C. Angelman's syndrome
D. Goodpasture's syndrome
10. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: C8/T1 nerve involvement and weakness in hand muscles?
A. Brown-Sequard syndrome
B. Thoracic outlet syndrome
C. Angelman's syndrome
D. Goodpasture's syndrome
11. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: maternal genetic phenotype syndrome?
A. Brown-Sequard syndrome
B. Thoracic outlet syndrome
C. Angelman's syndrome
D. Goodpasture's syndrome
12. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: Abnormal development of the 3rd and 4th (Pharyngeal pouches)?
A. Acute coronary syndrome
B. ARDS
C. Budd-Chiari syndrome
D. DiGeorge's syndrome
13. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: leads to an increased risk of stroke?
A. Acute coronary syndrome
B. ARDS
C. Budd-Chiari syndrome
D. DiGeorge's syndrome
14. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: abdominal pain, ascites, and hepatic vein occulsions?
A. Acute coronary syndrome
B. ARDS
C. Budd-Chiari syndrome
D. DiGeorge's syndrome
15. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: increased pulmonary permeability and fluid entering the lung space?
A. Acute coronary syndrome
B. ARDS
C. Budd-Chiari syndrome
D. DiGeorge's syndrome
16. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: can be caused by high doses of Tetracyclines?
A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. Fanconi's syndrome
C. Edward's syndrome
D. Cri-du-chat syndrome
17. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: caused by poor liver excretion?
A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. Fanconi's syndrome
C. Edward's syndrome
D. Cri-du-chat syndrome
18. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: chromosomal deficit of #5?
A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. Fanconi's syndrome
C. Edward's syndrome
D. Cri-du-chat syndrome
19. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: chromosomal deficit of #18?
A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. Fanconi's syndrome
C. Edward's syndrome
D. Cri-du-chat syndrome
20. Which of the following syndromes corresponds to: chromosomal deficit of #13?
A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. Patau's syndrome
C. Edward's syndrome
D. Down syndrome
Answer Key
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. A
5. C
6. B
7. D
8. D
9. A
10. B
11. C
12. D
13. A
14. C
15. B
16. B
17. A
18. D
19. C
20. B










Urinary system
Practice Questions
1. The renal medulla is composed of tissue called ______.
?A. Renal pyramids
B. Nephrons
C. Renal sinus
D. Renal pelvis
2. Juxtaglomerular cells combine with _______ cells to form the juxtagomerular apparatus in the kidney.
?A. Macula densa
B. Renal pelvis
C. Nephron
D. Renal sinus
3. Which of the following is not in the sequence of proper kidney blood flow? The starting point is the renal artery and the finishing point is the renal vein.
A. Arciform artery
B. Afferent arteriole
?C. Interlobar vein
D. Arciform vein
4. Which is found in the highest concentration in the urine?
A. Uric acid
?B. Urea
C. Glucose
D. Creatinine
5. The primary function of the ascending loop of Henle in the kidney is?
A. The active re-absorption of sodium
?B. The active re-absorption of chloride ions
C. The passive re-absorption of potassium
D. The passive re-absorption of urea
6. The middle layer of the urinary bladder is identified as ___________.
A. Mucous coat
?B. Submucous coat
C. Muscular Coat
D. Sphincter Coat
7. The micturition reflex center is located in the _____.
A. Pons
B. Midbrain
C. Lumbar plexus
?D. Sacral plexus
8. Which of the following match with the definition: a poor output of urine?
?A. Oliguria
B. Pyruia
C. Enuresis
D. Diuresis
9. Capillary loops located in the medulla are also known as _________.
?A. Vasa recta
B. Urea collectors
C. Trigone
D. Macula densa
10. The primary function of the descending loop of Henle in the kidney is?
A. Reabsorption of sodium ions
?B. Reabsoption of water by osmosis
C. Secretion of hydrogen ions
D. Secretion of potassium ions
11. Which of the following is not considered a part of the male urethra?
A. Prostatic
B. Membranous
?C. Vasapore
D. Penile
12. When glucose if found in urine it is called _____.
?//A. Glucosuria
B. Uremia
C. Ureteritis
D. Glucose intolerance
13. Which of the following is not considered a component of kidney stones?
A. Calcium phosphate
B. Uric Acid
C. Calcium oxalate
?D. HCO3
14. The one of the functions occurring at the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney is?
A. Passive secretion of hydrogen ions
?B. Passive secretion of potassium ions
C. Limited re-absorption of water
D. No re-absorption of sodium
15. ADH has which of the following effects on the distal convoluted tubule?
A. Decrease water re-absorption
?B. Increase water re-absorption
C. Decrease the concentration of urine
D. Increase the urine volume
16. Which of the following is not associated with the role of the kidneys?
A. Release of erythropoietin (hormone)
B. Release of renin (enzyme)
?C. Release of Vitamin E
D. Activate Vitamin D
17. Each kidney contains approximately ______ nephrons.
A. 10 million
?B. 1 million
C. 100,000
D. 10,000
18. The release of Angiotension II causes which of the following to occur?
?A. Increased filtration rate
B. Decreased glomerular hydrostatic pressure
C. Increase synthesis of Vitamin E
D. Increased release of erythropoietin
19. Which of the following is an effect of a diuretic?
?A. Decreased Cardiac Output
B. Increased fluid volume
C. Increased sodium re-absorption
D. Increased chloride ion re-absorption
20. Which of the following is not considered a loop diuretic?
A. Bumetadine (BUMEX)
B. Furosemide (LASIX)
?C. Chlorthiazide (DIURIL)
D. Ethacrynic Acid (EDECRIN)
Answer Key
1. A
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. B
6. B
7. D
8. A
9. A
10. B
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. B
16. C
17. B
18. A
19. A
20. C

[الجُمان]

NCLEX
Practice Questions
1. A patient tells you that her urine is starting to look discolored. If you believe this change is due to medication, which of the following patient's medication does not cause urine discoloration?
A. Sulfasalazine
B. Levodopa
C. Phenolphthalein
?D. Aspirin
2. You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit's refrigerator. If you found the following drug in the refrigerator it should be removed from the refrigerator's contents?
?A. Corgard
B. Humulin (injection)
C. Urokinase
D. Epogen (injection)
3. A 34 year old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
?D. IgG
4. A second year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most important action that nursing student should take?
A. Immediately see a social worker
?B. Start prophylactic AZT treatment
C. Start prophylactic Pentamide treatment
D. Seek counseling
5. A thirty five year old male has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for five years and now is unable to urinate. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Diabetic nephropathy
?C. Autonomic neuropathy
D. Somatic neuropathy
6. You are taking the history of a 14 year old girl who has a (BMI) of 18. The girl reports inability to eat, induced vomiting and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?
A. Multiple sclerosis
?B. Anorexia nervosa
C. Bulimia
D. Systemic sclerosis
7. A 24 year old female is admitted to the ER for confusion. This patient has a history of a myeloma diagnosis, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?
A. Diverticulosis
?B. Hypercalcaemia
C. Hypocalcaemia
D. Irritable bowel syndrome
8. Rho gam is most often used to treat____ mothers that have a ____ infant.
A. RH positive, RH positive
B. RH positive, RH negative
?C. RH negative, RH positive
D. RH negative, RH negative
9. A new mother has some questions about (PKU). Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU?
A. A Guthrie test can check the necessary lab values.
B. The urine has a high concentration of phenylpyruvic acid
C. Mental deficits are often present with PKU.
?D. The effects of PKU are reversible.
10. A patient has taken an overdose of aspirin. Which of the following should a nurse most closely monitor for during acute management of this patient?
A. Onset of pulmonary edema
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
?D. Parkinson's disease type symptoms
11. A fifty-year-old blind and deaf patient has been admitted to your floor. As the charge nurse your primary responsibility for this patient is?
A. Let others know about the patient's deficits
B. Communicate with your supervisor your concerns about the patient's deficits.
C. Continuously update the patient on the social environment.
?D. Provide a secure environment for the patient.
12. A patient is getting discharged from a SNF facility. The patient has a history of severe COPD and PVD. The patient is primarily concerned about their ability to breath easily. Which of the following would be the best instruction for this patient?
A. Deep breathing techniques to increase O2 levels.
B. Cough regularly and deeply to clear airway passages.
?C. Cough following bronchodilator utilization
D. Decrease CO2 levels by increase oxygen take output during meals.
13. A nurse is caring for an infant that has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely be present?
A. Slow pulse rate
?B. Weight gain
C. Decreased systolic pressure
D. Irregular WBC lab values
14. A mother has recently been informed that her child has Down's syndrome. You will be assigned to care for the child at shift change. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with Down's syndrome?
A. Simian crease تجعد قردي

?C. Oily skin
D. Hypotonicity
15. A patient has recently experienced a (MI) within the last 4 hours. Which of the following medications would most like be administered?
?A. Streptokinase
B. Atropine
C. Acetaminophen
D. Coumadin
16. A patient asks a nurse, “My doctor recommended I increase my intake of folic acid. What type of foods contain folic acids?”
?A. Green vegetables and liver
B. Yellow vegetables and red meat
C. Carrots
D. Milk
17. A nurse is putting together a presentation on meningitis. Which of the following microorganisms has noted been linked to meningitis in humans?
A. S. pneumonia
B. H. influenza
C. N. meningitis
?D. Cl. difficile
18. A nurse is administering blood to a patient who has a low hemoglobin count. The patient asks how long to RBC's last in my body? The correct response is.
A. The life span of RBC is 45 days.
B. The life span of RBC is 60 days.
C. The life span of RBC is 90 days.
?D. The life span of RBC is 120 days.
19. A 65 year old man has been admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery. When does the discharge training and planning begin for this patient?
A. Following surgery
?B. Upon admit
C. Within 48 hours of discharge
D. Preoperative discussion
20. A child is 5 years old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the child in?
A. Trust vs. mistrust
?B. Initiative vs. guilt
C. Autonomy vs. shame
D. Intimacy vs. isolation
21. A toddler is 16 months old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the toddler in?
?A. Trust vs. mistrust
B. Initiative vs. guilt
C. Autonomy vs. shame
D. Intimacy vs. isolation
22. A young adult is 20 years old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the adult in?
A. Trust vs. mistrust
B. Initiative vs. guilt
C. Autonomy vs. shame
?D. Intimacy vs. isolation
23. A nurse is making rounds taking vital signs. Which of the following vital signs is abnormal?
A. 11 year old male – 90 b.p.m, 22 resp/min., 100/70 mm Hg
?B. 13 year old female – 105 b.p.m., 22 resp/min., 105/60 mm Hg
C. 5 year old male- 102 b.p.m, 24 resp/min., 90/65 mm Hg
D. 6 year old female- 100 b.p.m., 26 resp/min., 90/70mm Hg
24. When you are taking a patient's history, she tells you she has been depressed and is dealing with an anxiety disorder. Which of the following medications would the patient most likely be taking?
?A. Elavil
B. Calcitonin
C. Pergolide
D. Verapamil
25. Which of the following conditions would a nurse not administer erythromycin?
A. Campylobacterial infection
B. Legionnaire's disease
C. Pneumonia
?D. Multiple Sclerosis
Answer Key
1. D
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. C
6. B
7. B
8. C
9. D
10. D
11. D
12. C
13. B
14. C
15. A
16. A
17. D
18. D
19. B
20. B
21. A
22. D
23. B
24. A
25. D B. Brachycephaly

Behavioral science
Practice Questions
1. Which of the following is not one of the key steps in the grief process?
A. Denialانكار
غضب

?D. Rejection
2. Which of the following matches the definition: covering up a weakness by stressing a desirable or stronger trait?
?A. Compensation
B. Projection
C. Rationalization
D. Dysphoria
3. Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found with light sleepers?
?A. Theta
B. Alpha
C. Beta
D. Zeta
4. Which of the following months matches with an infant first having the ability to sit-up independently?
?A. 4 months
B. 6 months
C. 8 months
D. 10 months
5. Object permanence for toddlers develops in this age range?
A. 5-10 months
B. 10-14 months
?C. 12-24 months
D. 15-24 months
6. Which of the following matches the definition: attributing of our own unwanted trait onto another person?
A. Compensation
?B. Projection
C. Rationalization
D. Dysphoria
7. Which of the following matches the definition: the justification of behaviors using reason other than the real reason?
A. Compensation
B. Projection
?C. Rationalization
D. Dysphoria
8. Which of the following matches the definition: response to severe emotion stress resulting in involuntary disturbance of physical functions?
?A. Conversion disorder
B. Depressive reaction
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Alzheimer's disease
9. Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found when you are awake?
A. Theta
B. Alpha
?C. Beta
D. Zeta
10. The REM sleep cycle occur approximately every ____ minutes?
A. 45
B. 60
C. 75
?D. 90
11. Which of the following reflexes is not found at birth?
A. Babinski
B. Palmar
C. Moro
?D. Flexion
12. Parallel play for toddlers develops in this age range?
A. 5-10 months
B. 10-14 months
C. 12-24 months
?D. 24-48 months
13. Which of the following is not a sign of anxiety?
A. Dyspnea
B. Hyperventilation
?C. Moist mouth
D. GI symptoms
14. Which of the following best describes a person that is completely awake falling asleep spontaneously?
?A. Cataplexy
B. Narcolepsy
C. Transitional sleep
D. REM absence
15. Which of the following best describes a person that is unable to tell you were there hand or foot is?
?A. Autotopagnosia
B. Cataplexy
C. Ergophobia
D. Anosognosia
16. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a panic disorder?
A. Nausea
B. Excessive perspiration
?C. Urination
D. Chest pain
17. Which of the following categories would a 70 year old adult be placed in?
A. Intimacy vs. Isolation
B. Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
?C. Integrity vs. Despair
D. Longevity vs. Guilt
18. Which of the following categories would a 60 year old adult be placed in?
A. Intimacy vs. Isolation
?B. Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
C. Integrity vs. Despair
D. Longevity vs. Guilt
19. Which of the following categories would a 20 year old adult be placed in?
?A. Intimacy vs. Isolation
B. Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
C. Integrity vs. Despair
D. Longevity vs. Guilt
20. Which of the following describes a person using words that have no known meaning?
?A. Neologisms
B. Neolithic
C. Verbalism
D. Delusional blocking
Answer Key
1. D
2. A
3. A
4. B
5. C
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. C
10. D
11. D
12. D
13. C
14. A
15. A
16. C
17. C
18. B
19. A
20. A B. Anger C. Bargaining

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