1. Bacteria without cell Wall

2. Obligatory Aerobic Bacteria

3. Brucella Melitensis is

4. Function of cell membrane

5. Pseudomonas aeroginosa is

6. Short rods, motile by single polar flagellum :

7. Genetic information of bacteria is carried on

8. Thermophilic bacteria grow at

9. Acidophilic bacteria grow at

10. Mycoplasma is

11. It is the adaptation of bacteria to the fresh medium

12. Bacteria which do not cause hemolysis is

13. Normal flora of Lower intestine is all of the following except:

14. Opportunistic pathogens are all of the following except:

15. It is circulation of bacterial toxins in blood

16. Inhibit the growth of micro-organisms

17. For disinfection of mattresses :

18. For sterilization of serum :

19. Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria:

20. Pyschrophilic bacteria grow at:

21. Bacteria which contain chlorophyll

22. Selective media for fungi is:

23. Tricophyton is one of

24. Plastomyces is one of

25. Mechanism of action of penicillin:

a. Inhibit protein synthesis

26. Antibiotics which inhibit DNA synthesis:

27. Color of gram negative bacteria is

28. Acid Fast Bacteria

29. Vibrio Cholera is:

30. Spherical or avoid cells occurring in chains

31. All are Prokaryotic cells except:

32. Viruses:

33. All of these are essential structure except:

34. ______________ is giving the shape to the bacteria

35. One of its functions is selective permeability

36. They are responsible for Haemagglutination Phenomenon

37. Clostridium Tetani is:

38. Short curved or straight rods, motile by single polar flagellum

39. Small gram negative cocci, occur in pairs

40. Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to another by bacteriophages is:

41. Toxoplasma gondii can be diagnosed by

42. Leishmania is transmitted by

43. The following is true about chlamydia except

44. The bacteria that arranged in chain is called

45. The following is accessary structural of bacteria except

46. The main function of flagella are-------except

47. Genetic information can be transfered by --------- except

48. Bacteria that able to grow in temperature -20c is called

49 Bateria growth curve include ----------except

50. Routine bacteria stain is include

51- Bacteria which contain chlorophyll

1- …………….. cause acute epiglottitis which may cause fatal airway obstruction.

a- Haemophilus influenza.

b- Strep. pneumonia.

c- Klebsiella pneumonia.

d- Chlamydia.

2- During Satellitism test ………….. grow on blood agar by the help of the growth of Staph.aureus.

a- Haemophilus influenzae.

b- Strep. pneumoniae.

c- Klebsiella pneumoniae.

d- Chlamydia.

3- Although Mycobacteria do NOT accept Gram stain they have …………… cell wall.

a- Gram positive.

b- Gram negative.

c- Gram variable.

4- Why Mycobacteria staining technique (ZN) requires heating as a dye mordent ?

a- Because their cell walls contain large amount of fat.

b- Because of their waxy surface.

c- Because they always have a thick capsule.

d- A and B.

5- Most strains of Mycobacteria need an incubation period of ……. to grow and form their significant characteristics.

a- Up to 3 weeks.

b- 4-8 weeks.

c- 2 days.

d- Overnight.

6- Which of the following cause diseases transmitted to human by an insect vector?

a- Mycoplasma.

b- Rickettsia..

c- Chlamydia.

d- All the above.

7- Rickettsia species cause …………………..

a- Typhus.

b- Scrub typhus.

c- Rocky mountain spotted fever.

d- All the above.

8- …………. are the smallest prokaryotes capable of extracellular self reproduction.

a- Mycoplasma.

b- Rickettsia..

c- Chlamydia.

d- All the above.

9- ……….. have a poorly gram negative staining cell membrane, but do not have a cell wall.

a- Mycoplasma.

b- Rickettsia..

c- Chlamydia.

d- All the above.

10- Large gram +ve non-motile rods, spore forming and capsulated are ……………………..

a- Haemophilus influenzae.

b- Yersinia pestis.

c- Clostridium tetani.

d- Bacillus anthracis.

11- Gram +ve rods appear in clusters like Chinese letters ……………………….

a- Strep. pneumoniae.

b- Campylobacter jejuni.

c- Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

d- Clostridium tetani.

12- C. diphtheriae grow rapidly on ……….. producing significant growth and characteristic morphological feature (granules formation).

a- Loffler serum medium.

b- Dorset egg medium.

c- Blood agar.

d- A & B.

13- Microbes that colonize the human body during birth or shortly thereafter, remaining throughout life are referred to as …………………..

a- Normal flora.

b- Pathogens.

c- Indigenous microbiota.

d- A & C.

14- Normal flora of the skin are concentrated in which of the following regions ……………………….

a- Moist areas.

b- Between the toes.

c- Groin.

d- All the above.

15- The highest number of normal flora is located in which site of the digestive system ?

a- Stomach.

b- Small intestine.

c- Bile duct.

d- Colon.

16- Which of the following part of the body remains sterile ( free from any microbe) ?

a- Mouth.

b- Nose.

c- Brain.

d- Urinary tract.

17- Gram positive bacterium can cause life threatening disease in hospital patients through forming biofilms along catheters and other invasive medical devices and enters bloodstream causing systemic infection is …..

a- Staphylococcus epidermidis.

b- Propionibacterium acnes.

c- Staphylococcus aureus.

d- Streptococcus mutans.

18- Gram positive bacterium, one of the nose normal flora, major cause of surgical wound infection and often referred to as MRSA …………………………

a- Staphylococcus aureus.

b- Streptococcus mutans.

c- Staphylococcus epidermidis.

d- Propionibacterium acnes.

19- Which of the following bacteria have the ability to grow on biofilms on the surface of teeth (plaque) and cause dental decay (caries) ?

a- Streptococcus mutans.

b- Propionibacterium acnes.

c- Staphylococcus epidermidis.

d- Helicobacter pylori.

20- Removal of Streptococcus mutans from oral microflora result in increased growth of ……………… and hence an increased risk of contracting pneumonia.

a- Staphylococcus aureus.

b- Helicobacter pylori.

c- Streptococcus pneumonia.

d- Staphylococcus epidermids.

21- The only organism that has been discovered living in the human stomach in a highly acidic environment (pH 1-2) is …………………………

a- Helicobacter pylori.

b- Campylobacter.

c- Lactobacillus.

d- Bacteroides.

22- Microbial growth in cultures is demonstrated by ……………….

a- Turbidity.

b- Gas formation.

c- Colonies formation.

d- All the above.

23- Identification of bacteria can be achieved through ……………..

a- Growth characteristics.

b- Colony appearance.

c- Microscopic morphological characters.

d- All of the above.

24- Buffered Glucose Peptone water à Fermentation of Glucose à …….… + Methyl red à Red color +ve result. ** Complete **

a- Acid.

b- Base.

c- Salt.

d- Citrate.

25- Which of the following bacteria is Gram positive rods obligatory anaerobic ?

a- Bacillus.

b- Niesseria.

c- Clostridia.

d- Mycobacteria.

26- Which of the following bacteria cause pyogenic meningitides ?

a- Staphylococcus aureus.

b- Streptococcus mutans.

c- Niesseria gonorrhoeae.

d- Niesseria meningitides.

27- Staphylococcus aureus grows on Mannitol salt agar forming yellow colonies due to …..

a- Salt degradation.

b- Agar liquefaction.

c- Mannitol fermentation.

d- CO2 production.

28- Which of the following bacteria are coagulase positive ?

a- Staph. aureus.

b- Staph. saprophiticus

c- Staph. epidermids

d- All the above.

29- Staph. aureus ……………..

a- Aerobic gram positive cocci arranged in clusters.

b- Grow on MacConkey agar producing pink colonies.

c- Grow on Mannitol salt agar producing yellow colonies.

d- All the above.

30- In case of alpha haemolysis on blood agar, colonies are surrounded by ………………

a- Greenish zone.

b- Colorless zone.

c- Yellowish zone.

d- Blue zone.

31- Bacteria which cause complete degradation of hemoglobin and produce colonies surrounded by clear zone on blood agar are referred to as ……………………

a- Alpha hemolytic bacteria.

b- Beta hemolytic bacteria.

c- Gamma hemolytic bacteria.

d- None of the above.

32- Pneumococci form part of the normal microbial flora of …………….. .

a- Moth.

b- Skin.

c- Colon.

d- Upper respiratory tract.

33- Strep. pneumoniae growth on Chocolate agar is enhanced when ………………….

a- Incubated in Carbon dioxide enriched atmosphere.

b- Incubated anaerobically.

c- Incubated at 42 C.

d- None of the above.

34- EaggEC [Enteroaggregative E.coli] causes ……………………….

a- Watery diarrhea.

b- Dysentery (similar to Shigellosis).

c- Chronic diarrhea mainly in children.

d- All the above.

35- E.coli grow on MacConkey agar producing ……………………

a- Yellow colonies.

b- Pink colonies.

c- Brown colonies.

d- Colorless colonies.

36- Best sample for diagnosing enteric fever during the 3rd week is (are) …………………

a- Blood.

b- Faeces.

c- Urine.

d- Sputum.

37- H2S producing Salmonella species grow on XLD agar forming ………………………

a- Pink-red colonies.

b- Pink-red colonies with black centers.

c- Black colonies.

d- Mercury drop colonies.

38- Which of the following bacterium is Gram –ve rods motile oxidase –ve and H2S +ve ?

a- Shigella.

b- Vibrio.

c- Pseudomonas.

d- Salmonella.

39- Widal test is a serological technique which tests for the presence of ………….. in a patient's serum.

a- Salmonella antibodies.

b- Salmonella surface antigens.

c- Salmonella exo-toxins.

d- Antibodies for Salmonella toxins.

40- Widal test is of a great diagnostic importance in case(s) of …………………….

a- Typhoid fever.

b- Paratyphoid fever.

c- Food poisoning.

d- A & B.

1- In oxidation-fermentation test fermentative bacteria utilize carbohydrate in ………….

a- The sealed tube only.

b- The open tube only.

c- Both open and sealed tubes.

d- Neither open nor sealed tube.

2- Urease enzyme catalyze the break down of urea to give ……. Which raise pH (Alkaline)

a- Acetic acid.

b- Ammonia.

c- Hydrogen peroxide.

d- Sodium hydroxide.

3- In urease test the organism is cultured in a medium which contains urea and the indicator …….

a- Phenol red.

b- Ferric chloride.

c- Bromothymol blue.

d- Neutral red.

4- The principle of Methyl red test is …………………..

a- The ability of Enterobacteria to ferment sucrose.

b- The ability of Enterobacteria to ferment glucose with production of acid.

c- The ability of Enterobacteria to ultiliza ammonia.

d- The ability of Enterobacteria to hydrolyze urea.

5- Catalase test is used to differentiate ………………..

a- N. gonorrhoeae from N. meningitides.

b- Staphylococcus from Streptococcus.

c- S. pneumonia from other streptococcus.

d- Salmonella from Shigella.

6- During catalase test we should avoid using media that contain ……… in order not to get false positive result.

a- Red blood cells.

b- Hydrogen peroxide.

c- Glucose.

d- Lactose.

7- ………….. àCatalaseà H2 + O2

a- H2O

b- H2O2

c- H3O2

d- OH

8- Coagulase test is used to confirm ……………………

a- Staphylococcus aureus.

b- Streptococcus pneumonia.

c- Staphylococcus epidermidis.

d- Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

9- C. diphtheriae characterized by ……………..

a- Formation of Voluntin granules.

b- Appear like Chinese letters under LM.

c- Infect young children forming psudomembrane at the throat.

d- All the above.

10- Which of the following bacteria are motile at (18-22 Co) BUT non-motile at (35-37 Co)?

a- Vibrio cholerae.

b- Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

c- Campylobacter jejuni.